Showing posts with label Grundrisse. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Grundrisse. Show all posts

Tuesday, 27 July 2010

Wages, Prices And Profit - Part 2

“The history of these Unions is a long series of defeats of the working-men, interrupted by a few isolated victories. All these efforts naturally cannot alter the economic law according to which wages are determined by the relation between supply and demand in the labour market. Hence the Unions remain powerless against all great forces which influence this relation. In a commercial crisis the Union itself must reduce wages or dissolve wholly; and in a time of considerable increase in the demand for labour, it cannot fix the rate of wages higher than would be reached spontaneously by the competition of the capitalists among themselves.”


“I think I have shown that their struggles for the standard of wages are incidents inseparable from the whole wages system, that in 99 cases out of 100 their efforts at raising wages are only efforts at maintaining the given value of labour, and that the necessity of debating their price with the capitalist is inherent to their condition of having to sell themselves as commodities. ... the working class ought not to exaggerate to themselves the ultimate working of these everyday struggles. They ought not to forget that they are fighting with effects, but not with the causes of those effects; that they are retarding the downward movement, but not changing its direction; that they are applying palliatives, not curing the malady. They ought, therefore, not to be exclusively absorbed in these unavoidable guerilla fights incessantly springing up from the never ceasing encroachments of capital or changes of the market.”


Perhaps the most obvious empirical evidence against the idea that workers living standards rise as a result of distributional struggle is the fact that the majority of workers do not belong to trade unions. On average, the percentage of unionised workers, in Britain, is around 25%. At best, such an explanation could only account for rising living standards for unionised workers. But, even there, a look at the statistics shows that, in most years, only a small minority, even of these unionised workers, are involved in anything that might be described as “class struggle” (a misnomer because, as Lenin says, arguing against the Economists, any such struggles, are only sectional not class wide). Most of the time, wages rise as a result of straightforward collective bargaining, without workers resorting to strikes, or any other form of industrial action. That is employers concede the agreed pay rise rather than having to be forced to do so. In many cases, especially with larger employers, collective bargaining is itself seen as merely a more rational means of arriving at such agreements than having to negotiate with workers on an individual basis. But, it is clearly the case that elsewhere, workers receive pay rises even where they are not in unions, and where no such collective bargaining agreements exist.

That does not appear the case since 2008, because of the imposition of austerity, and an active attempt to hold back economic growth, and the demand for labour-power, which would have caused interest rates to rise, and again caused asset prices to crash.  But, prior to 2008, wages were rising sharply.  It may well be the case that workers in unions enjoy higher wages than non-unionised workers, but, in large part, that appears to be more due to the fact that the highest instances of unionisation are in large, as opposed to small, enterprises, which in themselves are able to pass on some of the advantages of their own size to the workers. That is clearly not always the case, as Wal-Mart demonstrates.  But, Lenin's analysis in "The Development of Capitalism In Russia" showed the same profile that the larger the enterprise, the better the wages and conditions for workers.

The other empirical evidence in relation to that is the experience where trades unions themselves have been banned. In Germany under the “Anti-Socialist Laws” of the 19th century. Yet, again workers living standards in Germany rose quite strongly during the latter part of that period as German capital experienced rapid growth. A more recent example would be China, where although “trades unions” are not banned, independent trades unions are. The state run unions have acted to control any industrial action by workers, and yet workers living standards again have risen sharply. At the beginning of the 19th century, as Marx shows in Capital, the consequence of the General Enclosure Act of 1801, was to drive millions of peasants off their land and into the towns, creating, for the first time, a mass, available working class, for capital to exploit. Living standards fell dramatically. Yet, by the middle of the 19th century, workers living standards had risen considerably. That process was by no means a continual one, as the “Hungry Forties” demonstrated when thousands of workers starved in the northern towns, as a consequence of unemployment. Yet, living standards did rise, and that rise cannot be explained by the action of trades unions, for the majority of workers, because during that period it was only the skilled workers who were unionised. Unskilled workers were only unionised as a result of the “New Unionism” towards the end of the century. I would suggest that the explanation here is that it was the mass influx of peasants into the towns, which created a large supply of labour-power, which pushed down wages, and it was the reaching of a state of equilibrium in the labour market, which explains the fact that wages gradually rose. Similarly, we see in China today, workers not only demanding 30-50% pay rises, but winning such rises with the backing of the State Chinese Workers and the State, a situation, which is again due to the fact that the available supply of Chinese workers has begun to dry up.

I am not suggesting that trades unions, or industrial struggle, have no part to play in this process, I am merely reinforcing Marx's analysis that its role is marginal, and conditional upon other factors. I now want to turn to the basic mechanism by which the rise in workers living standards is effected, and then to deal with how that itself is conditional upon other factors.

In fact, the mechanism is the reverse of that which Marx set out as against Weston, in showing that workers could not simply push up wages beyond the value of labour-power. Suppose we take the position for capital as a whole as being:

C 2000 + V 1000 + S 1000 = K 4000.

Let us say that the wage bundle that makes up V consists of a “standard commodity” (X), and this V = 1000 units of it. Let us now assume that capital succeeds in reducing the exchange value of this Standard Commodity by 50%, so that the value of labour power falls accordingly. If workers continue to consumer the same 1000 units of X, then they will only need to be paid V = 500, or if we assess each of these units as 1 hour of labour-time, they will only need to work 500 hours rather than 1000, to reproduce the value of their labour power. Surplus value will rise accordingly.

C 2000 + V 500 + S 1500 = K 4000.

But, what is the consequence of this rise in S? It could be that out of much increased surplus value, Capitalists increase their unproductive consumption. More likely, seeing a higher rate of profit, Capital will accumulate more rapidly as capitalists seek to maximise their profits further. And, more than that, the higher rate of profit is likely to encourage an accumulation of capital from other sources. Petit-bourgeois, and even workers seeing the higher rate of profit, and improved position of Capital v Labour, may seek to mobilise their hoarded cash, or might seek to access credit from banks, who have acquired their own share of that increased surplus value, in order to convert it to capital, and start their own businesses. Not only will this mean that there is an increased supply of capital, but to the extent that these petit-bourgeois (in part), and certainly workers, were suppliers of labour-power, the supply of labour-power is reduced. Overall the consequence is that the Supply of Capital is increased, and the supply of labour-power is reduced, just at the moment when the increased supply and accumulation of capital means that the demand for labour-power is raised.  This is the argument Adam Smith proposed to explain the law of the tendency for the rate of profit to fall.  Its also the process Marx describes in Capital III, Chapter 15, to explain the overproduction of capital.

If we assume that we began with a situation, in which there was full-employment (a constraint I will relax later), then the consequence will be that the price of labour-power (wages) must rise. The rise in price, given full-employment, will mean that its supply will increase via the working of overtime, for example. The consequence is that wages will rise above the value of labour-power, and this will mean that workers can now consume not just 1000 units of X, but 1000 x (1+n) units where n equals the percentage rise in wages. So if wages rise 20%, then the wage bundle will now be 1200X. But, these additional 200 units of X, require production. That production is facilitated by the fact that there has been capital accumulation resulting from the preceding rise in S. The consequence is that the economy sees a shift in its production function towards a greater quantity and variety of wage goods.  That is also what Marx describes in Value, Price and Profit, as resulting from a rise in wages, rather than Weston's claim that it results in a rise in inflation.

"Instead of being limited to some branches of industry, the fall in the rate of profit consequent upon the rise of wages would have become general. According to our supposition, there would have taken place no change in the productive powers of labour, nor in the aggregate amount of production, but that given amount of production would have changed its form. A greater part of the produce would exist in the shape of necessaries, a lesser part in the shape of luxuries, or what comes to the same, a lesser part would be exchanged for foreign luxuries, and be consumed in its original form, or, what again comes to the same, a greater part of the native produce would be exchanged for foreign necessaries instead of for luxuries. The general rise in the rate of wages would, therefore, after a temporary disturbance of market prices, only result in a general fall of the rate of profit without any permanent change in the prices of commodities."


This is still consistent with a rise in the organic composition of capital, and with a growth in the production of means of production, for the simple reason that these additional wage goods, themselves require additional production of means of production for their own production. Once this shift in production is accomplished a new equilibrium is established. If all of the 1500S is accumulated, and then without the rise in wages, we would have,

C 3200 + V 800 + S 2400 = K 6400, allowing for a 20% rise in wages then,

C 3200 + V 960 + S 2240 = K 6400.

Compared to the original situation C/V (the organic composition of capital) has risen from 200% to 333%. S/V (the rate of exploitation) has risen from 100% to 233%, and the S/(C+V) (the rate of profit) has gone from 33.3% to 53.8%. Yet, workers real living standards have risen by 20%, and production of wage goods X now stands at 1920 units as opposed to 1,000 units. The rise in real wages required no element of “class struggle” to effect, but was the result quite simply of the straightforward application of the laws of supply and demand to the price of labour-power in a situation of full-employment, and with a rising demand for Labour-Power arising from increased accumulation. That rise in wages itself creates an increased demand for wage goods, which results in a shift of society's production function, to increased production of wage goods, and the means of production required to produce them.

Back To Part 1

Forward To Part 3

Wages, Prices and Profits - Part 1

I was reading a back copy of Capital and Class the other day. In an article by G.Mantega and M. Moraes “A Critique of Brazilian Political Economy”, they write,

“Wage increases, when they occur, far from reflecting capital's preoccupation in guaranteeing a level of consumption, are a result of the struggle, which the working class undertakes through its trade unions, parties etc. and are the victories of this class over the Capitalists.” (p150)

They make this comment in relation to the idea put forward by some Brazilian economists that rising wage levels were not only desirable, but necessary in order that the Brazilian domestic market could grow, and so capital accumulation could proceed.

But, this statement is false. Marx in his debates with Weston – See Value, Price and Profit, shows that workers can never win ultimately from these “guerilla” struggles, as he calls them. If workers win a pay rise, higher than is consistent with capital accumulation, if they raise the price of labour-power above the value of labour power, then capital will respond by a variety of methods – speed-up, introduction of new, labour-saving machinery, a slow down in investment, and so on, in order to reduce the demand for labour power, so that its price falls back again. However, in The Grundrisse, Marx also says that workers real living standards DO rise, as a result of the expansion of Capital. He calls it Capitalism's “Civilising Mission”. Even had Marx not said that, then we only have to use the evidence of our eyes to see that workers living standards have risen, and are rising. There appears to be a contradiction here. On the one hand, Marx shows that capital has an interest in forcing wages down to the minimum level. This is a basic class conflict that lies at the heart of capitalism, between labour and capital. He shows that the actual rise in wages/living standards cannot be a result of an economistic, distributional struggle, because in that struggle workers lack the basic tools to be able to win anything other than temporary skirmishes, which will be reversed. As he puts it,

"Citizen Weston, on his part, has forgotten that the bowl from which the workmen eat is filled with the whole produce of national labour, and that what prevents them fetching more out of it is neither the narrowness of the bowl nor the scantiness of its contents, but only the smallness of their spoons."

Yet, living standards do rise. If that rise is not a result of this distributional struggle, then what is its cause? It is not enough to simply say that the cause is the fact that capital needs such a rise. Just because capital might need it, does not mean it will get it, or tell us how it is achieved, particularly given the conflict at the level of each firm, that leads capital to try to minimise wages.

In the Grundrisse, Marx sets out a basic outline of the process. Capital, in trying to reduce the value of labour-power, reduces the value of wage goods. As workers consume more of these lower priced goods they eventually reach a situation where the demand for any particular commodity is relatively sated. Orthodox economics refers to this as the price elasticity of demand, whereby to increase demand by any given proportion, requires larger and larger proportional falls in prices. Long before orthodox economics discussed this phenomena, Marx had described it. He writes, for example, in Theories of Surplus Value,

“Say’s earth-shaking discovery that “commodities can only be bought with commodities” simply means that money is itself the converted form of the commodity. It does not prove by any means that because I can buy only with commodities, I can buy with my commodity, or that my purchasing power is related to the quantity of commodities I produce. The same value can be embodied in very different quantities [of commodities]. But the use-value—consumption—depends not on value, but on the quantity. It is quite unintelligible why I should buy six knives because I can get them for the same price that I previously paid for one.” 


Capital as it expands produces new use values, which then form additional commodities that workers can consume, which then form part of the general bundle of goods that comprise the necessary consumption for the reproduction of labour-power; what Sraffian economics calls the “Standard Commodity”. As workers increasingly form the majority of consumers, capital depends on being able to sell to workers.

This might be an accurate description of the process, but it is not an explanation of it. The reason capital cheapens wage goods is to reduce the value of labour-power. That can only happen, capital can only minimise the payment to labour, if the actual bundle of use values that form the workers consumption remains the same. As Marx says in the Grundrisse, each capitalist wants to keep the wages of his workers at a minimum to maximise his profits, but wants the wages of all other workers to be as high as possible in order to create the maximum demand for his products! As, Mantega and Moraes say, wage goods are not the only form of consumption. Marx himself demonstrates that under capitalism, constant capital grows at a faster rate than variable capital over time i.e. workers share of the pie, of total production falls, whatever happens to their wages in nominal or real terms. So, capital can create demand for itself by producing more means of production. In addition, if the bundle of wage goods consumed by workers remains the same, capital can still increase the production of use values consumed by capitalists as unproductive consumption i.e. luxury goods, out of their increased surplus value.  Besides, productive-capitalists are not the only ones besides workers who consume.  Landlords, obtain large rents out of surplus value, the state derives taxes out of surplus value, and money-lending capitalists derive vast amounts of interest and dividends out of surplus value, all of which goes to fund unproductive consumption.

As Mantega and Moraes point out, the fall in the value of wage goods, means that the bundle of wage goods could be increased, whilst still enabling the rate of profit to rise. If, formerly workers had to work for 4 hours to reproduce their labour-power i.e. to create sufficient value to equal the value of the wage goods they consume, and worked another 4 hours producing surplus value, then, if workers only needed to work for 3 hours, that would mean 5 hours of surplus value. If real wages rose so that the bundle of wage goods increased to be equal to 3.5 hours, that would still leave 4.5 hours of surplus value. The rate of exploitation would have risen from 100% to 4.5/3.5 x 100 = 128%, even though workers living standards would have risen. But, again, the fact that this possibility exists does not give us an explanation as to why it should, why capital should facilitate such a rise in workers living standards, when the basic tendency is to maximise exploitation by minimising wages.

The following attempts to pick this apart, and provide an explanation of the process. The starting point is to deal with the idea that the mechanism is a consequence of distributional struggle, by going beyond the argument provided by Marx, and looking at the empirical evidence.

Forward To Part 2

Monday, 19 July 2010

Big Society, Big Con

As opposition to the Liberal-Tory cuts and privatisations mounts, not least from within the ranks of the upper echelons of the State whose interests are threatened, David Cameron has returned today to the idea of the “Big Society” - the idea that there should be a big move of power away from the State, and to ordinary people in Society. On the face of it, a laudable idea, and one that Marx would have certainly approved of. But, the “Big Society” is in fact, a Big Con. It is in fact, a continuation of those same Fabian, Neo-Liberal, statist ideas that have dominated politics for the last century, and which Marx vehemently opposed. Cameron proposes to shuffle off the responsibility for the provision of various services and functions to a rag-bag of voluntary organisations – presumably to be approved by them, and certainly encouraged by them – rather than being the result of workers themselves organising and establishing co-operatives under their ownership and control, and it will remain the Capitalist State, which will retain the purse strings, and, therefore, control of who is given State Aid, and how much such organisations will be allowed to spend. It will continue to be, therefore, the Capitalist State, at both a central and local level, that will continue to expand its sphere of operation, and of control, via this control of finance. It will be that Capitalist State that will continue to finance that by exacting ever increasing levels of taxation from the working and middle-class. This is not the anti-statist program of Marx, which called for Direct Taxation because,

“Direct taxation prompts therefore every individual to control the governing powers while indirect taxation destroys all tendency to self-government.”

At a superficial level, the ideas put forward by Cameron, which as I illustrated in my blog Red Tories, do have some resonance in the anti-state politics of Marx, and for that reason, Marxists should use the space opened up by that debate to go beyond the limitations that the Liberal-Tories want to place on such a development, and instead argue for the development of that real “Workers Self-Government” that Marx describes, and which even finds its way into some of the programs of the twentieth century, in relation to Independent Workers Education, Workers Defence Squads, and the Workers Militia etc. The importance of this for Marxists from a Philosophical perspective cannot be overstated, but nor can it from a practical perspective of proletarian political strategy. Marx recognised the need to ensure that the working class retained its independence from Capital, and from the Capitalist State at all costs. That came from his understanding of the relation between Labour and Capital. The fundamental basis of the theory of Historical Materialism is that social classes are produced and reproduced by the very workings of the economic system, by the Method of Production. It is this which ensures that the Capitalist Class continues to rule, and that workers are ruled, not any use of force. Force only plays a role at specific times, that is when that general method of rule and reproduction breaks down.

Under Capitalism, the accumulation of Capital, raises the demand for Labour Power. Meanwhile, the need to cheapen wage goods, to reduce the value of Labour-Power, enables Capital to permit a rise in the workers real living standards, whilst still extracting additional relative surplus value. Via this process, workers become more affluent (higher living standard), but poorer (further removed from the ownership of Capital, as Constant Capital grows faster than Variable Capital), as Marx sets out in the Grundrisse. In other words, the very working of this process ensnares workers more, and more. The greater the accumulation of capital, the greater the demand for Labour, and, therefore, the more affluent the worker, but the more dependent they are for that affluence on the need to continue to work, to continue to subordinate themselves to Capital. The only way, Marx says, in the Grundrisse, for workers to break out of that is for them to become the owners of Capital themselves. That is the strategy he develops in Capital, in the Programmatic documents of the First International, in the Programme of the French Socialists, in the Critique of the Gotha Programme, and elsewhere. See Can Co-operatives Work Part 2.

But, this relation of Labour to Capital is replicated in the relation to the Capitalist State. It is replicated in two ways. As an employer, the Capitalist State is, as Kautsky put it, only distinguished from the private Capitalist employer in that it is far more ruthless, and far more powerful as against its workers than any individual Capitalist employer. You only have to think of the experience of the Miners in 1984, to recognise that fact. Yet, so long as workers consciousness remains at the level of Trade Unionism, or reformism, of bargaining within the system, they will relate as Workers to the Capitalist State as to any other capitalist employer, they will remain trapped within that Capital-Labour relation. They will not want to see that State overthrown, any more than workers in a private company want to see it go bust, because it is their means of livelihood, it is their only source of income. But, in the twentieth century, the Capitalist State became far more than just an employer. In the 19th century, alongside their Trade Unions, and Co-operatives, the workers had established Friendly Societies into which they paid small sums, and thereby accumulated their own reserves to cover periods of sickness, unemployment and old age. It was what Marx meant when he spoke about the need for Society to take on this responsibility – by which he meant workers collectively as opposed to individually, and most definitely NOT the State, which Marx was always very careful to distinguish FROM society. In fact, even in the 19th Century the capitalist State was trying to make inroads into these workers funds, and independent provision, which provoked Marx to raise the demand within the First International for the State to keep its hands off them.

At the end of the 19th century and beginning of the twentieth century, the growth of “New Unionism”, the development of unions for the millions of unskilled workers, the development of National Union structures as opposed to the previous local federations, and the sharp rise in workers living standards that accompanied the Long Wave Boom from the late 1880's up to 1914, meant that these funds could be used by workers as an effective defence against the repeated threats of unemployment by the bosses, and could begin to create a serious worker-owned sector of the economy. Already by this time, the Co-op had become a major retailer that was threatening established stores, as well as having branched out into wholesaling and production, which confronted the Capitalist cartels, such as that in Soap production, effectively. As early as the 1850's, the Co-op was the only provider of workers education, and established a Co-operative College that drew in students from all over the globe, through which it advocated international co-operation, and workers solidarity. In the early part of the 20th Century, Communists were declaring War on bourgeois education, and establishing a movement for Independent Workers Education by establishing the PlebsLeague, and National Council of Labour Colleges. They declared no compromise with bourgeois education, which mirrored Marx's position when he declared that State involvement in education was “wholly objectionable”, and instead advocated education tied to employment. The development of the State into these areas – what has come to be termed The Welfare State – was a move to head off these developments by the workers, and further entrap them in that same Capital-Labour relation.

In Education, the State had already begun to be involved in Elementary Education so that it could indoctrinate working-class children, at the same time as producing that more educated workforce of the future that Capital required. In the face of a growing movement of independent workers education, the bourgeoisie responded by establishing the WEA. In a good example of how workers should move from finding that demands for greater democratic control over Capitalist property is impossible, and leads to the lesson that such control can only arise if they create their own property and institutions, the Plebs League and NCLC had been established because workers attending Ruskin College had refused to stay within the bounds of bourgeois education, and were demanding courses based on Marx's “Capital”, for instance.

The same was true for the establishment of National Insurance, on the supposed basis of the State providing for workers when they were unemployed, old or sick. In fact, what it did was to drain those workers resources that were going into their own funds, and organisations to provide for those things under their control, and to make them wholly dependent for them on the capitalist State, just as capital made them wholly dependent on wages for their livelihood! And, as I set out in my blog Cut & Run, this was no more than a huge Mafia style protection racket, or a repeat on a national scale of the kinds of “Truck System”, that individual employers had operated in the 19th Century, and against which Trades Unionists and Socialists had campaigned. Workers funds were drained from their own Friendly Societies into the coffers of the capitalist State, and the things they were supposed to get in return such as Pensions, they never lived to collect – and now they are that same State demands they don't collect until they are older! - or like Unemployment Benefit was only accessible under the most extreme and demeaning basis, and was cut in the Depression at the very moment it was most required!

The Left has perpetuated the myth that these things were in some way won from the Capitalist State as concessions, a story it tells itself as part of its own infatuation with the Capitalist State, but it was no such thing. The Welfare State was from the beginning, the brainchild of the bourgeoisie. The basic elements of it were drawn up by the Tory Neville Chamberlain in the 1920's. Its purpose is to undermine the potential for that workers' “self-government” that Marx spoke of, and to trap workers within that Capital-Labour relation. And, for those who are most heavily dependent upon that Welfare, provided by the Capitalist State, the relation could not be clearer. In place of that self-government and the self-confidence and moral strength that Marx saw as necessary for the advancement of workers if they were to supersede the bourgeoisie, it traps them in a grinding level of dependence that saps their moral fibre, and turns them into virtual serfs. That in itself plays a role for capital. In the English Civil War, many serfs, if not the majority, fought on the side of the King. They did so, because under feudalism it was the King, and the substrata of the aristocracy that maintained them, provided them with the only source of income they had. That was true of some of the poorer peasants too, who looked to the King for defence against the rising tide of Enclosures being pushed through by the richer peasants, and Capitalist farmers. In Germany in the 1930's, it was the lumpenproletariat, those dependent on the State for a living, to supplement what they could make from crime, prostitution etc., who rallied to the Nazis, whose function was to maintain the Capitalist State. Those who work for the Capitalist State, or who are dependent upon it will undoubtedly seek to defend it, on the basis of defending their only source of income, employment etc., and in doing so, necessarily perpetuate their own subservience to it, just as workers fighting a private employer for better conditions in doing so simply reinforce their own dependence upon him.

As Marx put it,

“At the same time, and quite apart from the general servitude involved in the wages system, the working class ought not to exaggerate to themselves the ultimate working of these everyday struggles. They ought not to forget that they are fighting with effects, but not with the causes of those effects; that they are retarding the downward movement, but not changing its direction; that they are applying palliatives, not curing the malady. They ought, therefore, not to be exclusively absorbed in these unavoidable guerilla fights incessantly springing up from the never ceasing encroachments of capital or changes of the market. They ought to understand that, with all the miseries it imposes upon them, the present system simultaneously engenders the material conditions and the social forms necessary for an economical reconstruction of society.”

Saturday, 3 July 2010

Chinese Workers And The State - Part 6

The Socialist Revolution

The successful bourgeois revolution, and industrialisation in Britain, had forced other states to industrialise and become bourgeois themselves on pain of economic annihilation. Would a successful socialist transformation in Britain, France or Germany have led at some point to a similar transformation in the Stalinist States. It is impossible to say. My belief is not. The dynamics of the two revolutions, the requirements for their success are completely different.

One requires only that a fairly small, already privileged and educated class pursue its own interests to get rich, and to develop its class consciousness on that basis. The other requires that a massive social class, coming from a condition of relative poverty, acquire the understanding that its individual interests can only be advanced via collective, co-operative action and forms of property. For this revolution to succeed then as Marx put it the Battle of Democracy really does have to be won. The working class in its vast majority has to be fully conscious of its interests, its goals, and its mission.

That cannot be brought about from on high, by a bureaucratic state, or by a state under the control of some elite vanguard party. Ultimately, that was why the revolutions in Russia and China had to fail. The material conditions did not exist in which a working class formed the majority of society. The working class was too small, too weak, too poor to have established the kinds of Co-operative property that could exist in opposition to Capitalist property, and through which that class could learn the need to extend such collective, co-operative property, and the need for it to act as a class in such a collective, co-operative fashion to assert its interests as against those of the bourgeoisie.

Having overthrown the political power of the bourgeoisie, and Landlords, and gone on to destroy the economic and social foundations from which those classes sprung and were reproduced, the workers and peasants were not yet ready to exercise political power themselves, and those to whom they were led to cede that power to exercise on their behalf rather than hand power back to the old ruling classes, were unable given the conditions to bring about the economic and social transformation. At best they could prevent the return of the old ruling classes. But societies cannot exist in such a limbo. They have to move forwards, or else they will ultimately move back. Both have moved back.

Fortunately, the history of those previous revolutions is that although the initial premature political revolutions were defeated, and restorations occurred – indeed in England rather like in Russia, there was little or no opposition from the masses to the Stuart restoration – lessons were learned from them. They established the fact, not at all accepted at the time, that a people cut kill a King, and that societies could function without them.

The Russian and Chinese Revolutions established the fact that workers, even when they are a minority, can overthrow the power of the bourgeoisie, and societies can function without the rule of Capital. The real work of those revolutions took place over the following 200 years, not in such grand events, but almost behind men's backs, as the economic and social power of the bourgeoisie grew, and as Marx says in the Manifesto,

“Each step in the development of the bourgeoisie was accompanied by a corresponding political advance of that class. An oppressed class under the sway of the feudal nobility, an armed and self-governing association in the medieval commune(4): here independent urban republic (as in Italy and Germany); there taxable “third estate” of the monarchy (as in France); afterwards, in the period of manufacturing proper, serving either the semi-feudal or the absolute monarchy as a counterpoise against the nobility, and, in fact, cornerstone of the great monarchies in general, the bourgeoisie has at last, since the establishment of Modern Industry and of the world market, conquered for itself, in the modern representative State, exclusive political sway. The executive of the modern state is but a committee for managing the common affairs of the whole bourgeoisie.”

And as Marx also says, in the Grundrisse,

“"As the system of bourgeois economy has developed for us only by degrees so too its negation, which is its ultimate result." p712.”

Capitalism will not be replaced by a Socialism arising from some single big, political revolutionary event as the Leninists believe, but will be replaced by a Socialism that develops gradually within its midst, “by degrees”, just as Feudalism succumbed to a capitalism that proved its historical superiority from within the old society, and upon which arose the economic and social power of the bourgeoisie, and out of which arose its class consciousness, its political institutions, and its own state forms.

It will be replaced when that process is transformed from quantity into quality, and the working class recognising its real economic and social power, simply says, “We are many, you are few”, and sweeps the bourgeoisie from history once and for all. For the last 100 years, the number of Co-operatives throughout the world has continued to grow. More people today are employed around the globe by Co-operatives than are employed by Multinational companies. Even the Tories have been forced to recognise the superiority of Co-operatives to private Capitalist ownership, and no wonder, last year, Worker owned enterprises outperformed the FTSE 100 companies by 10%. Housing Co-operatives have been shown to be the most efficient means of housing provision.

The Co-operative Mode of Production against tremendous odds is demonstrating its superiority, demonstrating that it is the future, just as Capitalism once did. Marxists should stop chasing after romantic fantasies of a repeat of the 1917 Revolution, and begin to analyse and understand the transformations in the productive and social relations already taking place, and base themselves upon them as Marx did.

Monday, 21 December 2009

A Reply To jacob Richter - Part 2

The Iron Law of Disproportionate Immiseration:

"In the “trickle-down” best of times, workers’ incomes do not rise as rapidly as the incomes of those above them, and while immiserated further by interest on the growing but hidden consumer debt slavery that supports this disproportionate immiseration, they can be subject to the disproportionately immiserating effects of inflation;"

There are many problems with this. Firstly, it assumes that “workers” are some homogenous group, all of whom face exactly the same conditions all of the time. That is quite clearly not the case. The position of young workers will not be the same as that of older workers. The position of workers in London, or other high housing and living cost areas, will not be the same as that of workers elsewhere in the country, where housing and living costs are only a fraction of that. The position of workers in high unemployment areas, or industries, will not be the same as that of workers in new, low unemployment areas, or in new, dynamic and profitable industries. For example, during the 1930’s alongside the devastating unemployment that afflicted some areas like the North-East, there were new emerging industries like consumer electronics beginning to be developed, particularly in the South-East. Workers in these industries tended to do very well, especially as they faced lower prices for wage goods, and new methods for house building were also beginning to make house purchase possible. In fact, during the 1930’s, for those in stable employment, things were not that bad, because wages did not fall as much as prices. I’ve detailed some of that in previous posts, particularly in The Truth About The Economy.

A good illustration of that is your comments about the immiserating role of debt interest and inflation. If we look at the period of the post-war, Long Wave Boom, then we find a large number of workers, for the first time, becoming home-owners. Of course, many also remained rent paying tenants either to private or Local Authority landlords. If we take the period from the early 1960’s onwards, in particular, then what we see is that those workers who had decided to buy their homes were not at all immiserated by the debt burden they had taken on, nor by the inflation that gradually rose. On the contrary, these workers obtained considerable affluence as a result! Although, the mortgages they took out, on these properties, to many, seemed burdensome at first – though they would have only been for a fraction of the multiples of income permitted today – rising wages soon made the repayments appear much smaller. The rampant inflation of the 1970’s from the “Barber Boom” onwards simply inflated away the debt. In fact, it inflated away the debt so much that, for many of these houses, which cost £1,000-£2,000 for a new semi detached house in 1960, it was as though they had simply been given away to the workers who bought them. Even those who bought towards the end of that boom benefited. My sister bought her new three-bedroom semi in 1972, for £2,000. As both she and her husband have always had low paid jobs that would have seemed a lot of money. But, after the inflation of the 1970’s and early 80’s, even for low-paid workers, £2000 seemed an insignificant sum. At the same time, the inflation had the opposite consequence for those workers who had not bought. It meant that where the first group of workers now had essentially no housing costs – because you could pay off your mortgage – these other workers saw their housing costs soar with rising rents. The fact that such a large number of workers DID buy their houses during that period, and the gross variation in house prices – and consequent effect on rents – between London and much of the rest of the country is of considerable consequence.

In fact, contrary to your argument here, inflation always has this consequence for debt. Its why Governments have always used inflation to deal with debt, and why its likely, as I’ve argued elsewhere, they will use it again to deal with the current high levels of Public and private debt.

This had other consequences too. Freed from housing costs, which formed a large proportion of household expenditure, such workers were able to save money, and contribute to Pension Schemes, where they became available through the companies they worked for, and at the same time acquire other assets. Again the consequences should not be underestimated. For one group with disposable income and savings, it becomes possible to buy cars, consumer durables etc. out of savings. For the other, lacking such savings, buying such goods often does require going into debt, often at extortionate rates of interest on HP. Nor should we underestimate the role, during the 1980’s, but even going back to the 1970’s, of a growing financial services industry, selling financial products now to workers that once would have been the preserve of the rich. I remember, for example, in 1975, being offered a job with Hambro’s Bank, selling such products. But, by the 1980’s, most workers had got used to the idea of owning shares, if not directly, then via, Unit Trusts, and PEP’s. Those older workers, who had essentially been given the houses they lived in for free, were well placed to accumulate considerable amounts in such funds, which again, with inflation, and a rising rate of profit, during the late 1980’s and 1990’s, increased considerably in value.

Its no wonder then that it is estimated that by 2012, 30% of Britons will be dollar millionaires, a figure which must include a considerable number of workers. I read somewhere that around 5 million Briton’s now own property in Spain, and more own property elsewhere, whilst 1 Million live at least part of the year in Spain. And, whilst the figures for personal indebtedness appear horrific, it has to also be remembered that the number of people with such net debt is actually a minority, if I remember correctly less than 20%, whilst the average net savings is estimated at around £30,000.

Secondly, I think there is every reason to believe that in the “ best of times” periods, which I would refer to as the Long Wave Boom periods, the incomes of workers probably DO rise faster than the incomes of those above them, particularly within the ranks of the petit-bourgeoisie, but probably within the bourgeoisie too, though not necessarily at the beginning of such periods. I think that its necessary to distinguish here, between the “incomes” of the bourgeoisie and “profits”. As Glyn and Sutcliffe showed in “Workers and the Profits Squeeze”, during the last Long Wave Boom, workers incomes did rise relative to profits. As, during such a period, the need to maintain rates of accumulation continues, its likely that a greater proportion of this profit, which can still be bigger in absolute terms, even whilst being “squeezed” by wages, will go to accumulation, leaving less to be distributed as income to Capitalists. The consequences of that can be seen later in terms of relative inequality. Inequality levels have risen more recently, and that is almost certainly due to the weaker position of workers during the Long Wave downturn of the 1980’s and 90’s, whereas inequality did seem to diminish after the Long Wave Post War Boom.

“When rates of industrial profit fall during recessions and otherwise, workers’ incomes are fully subject to the disproportionately immiserating pressure coming from elsewhere in the “freely” and “socially” exploited labour market – namely from the reserved armies of the unemployed – and specifically unprotected workers’ incomes are fully subject to the disproportionately immiserating effects of inflation;”

It simply is not possible to speak, in mechanical terms, of the rate of profit falling during recessions. Recessions, in periods of Long Wave downswing, will be different, in character, to those in periods of Long Wave Boom. During the former, as with the character of such a Long Wave Phase in general, it is, on the contrary, more characteristic to see rates of profit rise. That is what was witnessed during the last downswing of the 80’s and 90’s. And, although it is clearly the case, that during these periods, the Reserve Army of Labour does act to put downward pressure on wages, it is important to look at this empirically rather than simply to conclude that real wages, for all workers, must fall. Keynes and other economists recognised this fact, and spoke about wages being “sticky” in a downward direction. As I said above, during the 1930’s, wages for those in employment fell less than the fall in prices. Rather than inflation, during such a period, being relatively immiserating, therefore, the deflation had the opposite effect.

And, during the 1970’s, it was the closing stages of the Post-War Boom and onset of the downswing, which saw profit rates squeezed the most, because the residual strength and militancy of workers, built up during the Boom, enabled them to resist attempts by Capital to reduce wages. I agree that those who suffer most are those not in work.

”3) When rates of financial profit fall during recessions and otherwise, much of workers’ incomes are diverted to consumer and mortgage debt payments, while still fully subject to the disproportionately immiserating pressure coming from reserved armies of the unemployed and, for unprotected workers’ incomes, the disproportionately immiserating effects of inflation;”

I have no data to confirm or deny your first statement, but I would expect that again it would be different in different recessions. For one thing, it will depend upon the extent to which workers’ real wages rise or fall during the recession, the amount of disposable income available for paying off debt, the rate of interest, and the rate of inflation and expectations in relation to these. As I have stated, the role of the Reserve Army applies at a high level of abstraction, but in order to see its actual role it is necessary to drill down to the real workers at any one time. As Lenin said, “The truth is always concrete.” Again I would agree that those without work, those in temporary or casual employment etc. will be the worst affected. In part, I think this is part of the problem with much of the Left’s analysis, which focuses on this Minority (if, especially during the Long Wave downturn, and first stage of the upswing, a sizeable Minority) and its condition, and takes it as being the condition of the working class as a whole.

“4) During depressions, the absolute immiseration of workers’ incomes towards subsistence levels is in full effect.”

But, in actual fact, that clearly is not the case! As Hobsbawm says, in “Industry & Empire”, even during the 1930’s, workers were, on average, only out of work for a few months. It was only in specific areas where there was chronic and persistent unemployment. In those areas, the full weight of the reserve army could press down on local wages, but could have little effect on National wage rates, or in those areas where new dynamic industries were being developed – especially as during the 1930’s it was even less practical for workers to “Get on their bike”. Consequently, even during the 1930’s, workers incomes were not driven down to subsistence levels. Compared with today, they were pretty abysmal, but that is not comparing apples with apples. By the same token, real wage levels in the 1930’s were not driven down to anything like the levels that applied even during relatively prosperous periods of the 19th century. Nor, during the Second Slump of the 1980’s and 90’s, were wages driven down to anything like those of the 1930’s or even the 1950’s, or early 60’s.

Thursday, 9 July 2009

Reclaiming Economics Part 6 - Profits, Monopoly, Labour & Capital

Orthodox economics has a problem with profits. It cannot explain where profits come from. It attempts to skirt around this problem by giving us lots of explanations of what profits are – even though sometimes it seems to define that according to the requirements of the argument. So, for example, it will at one point tell us that profits are a reward for deferring consumption. At another it will tell us that profits are a reward for risk taking. On another occasion it will tell us that, in the same way that wages are the return for Labour, and Rent is the return for Land, so Profits are the return for Capital. But, whilst all these things MAY be a justification for those that do defer consumption, do take risks, do employ Capital, they still do not explain where those profits came from! After all, Death may be the wages of Sin, but it still does not provide us with an actual scientific analysis of what causes it. Worse still, as stated in previous parts of this series, when orthodox economics DOES attempt to analyse the actual source of profits, it ends up at the ludicrous conclusion that under competitive Capitalism, profits should not exist, because that very competition will ensure that the prices of all inputs are reduced to costs!!!

The only economic theory that can explain the source of profits, and their distribution, is Marx’s theory. Even the other Classical Economists like Smith and Ricardo, were unable to properly explain it. The real problem for orthodox economics, as a theory essentially in the service of Capitalism, is that in order to explain profits you have to accept the existence of “exploitation”, that is you have to accept that the source of profits is the production of new Value by Labour, a part of which is appropriated by Capital without any equivalent payment. I have put the word exploitation in quotes, because for many Marxists, as well as their detractors the word has an emotive meaning, which is not entirely accurate in understanding the sense in which Marx uses the term. Another problem for orthodox economics, which is true of all bourgeois social science, is that because it is subjectivist, it takes forms existing under Capitalism, and then transplants the Capitalist content of those forms into similar forms found under other, completely different social systems, and epochs.

Social Surplus


For example, Alchian and Allen state, “Profits exist in all economic systems.” But, this is not true, or at least it’s not true in the sense that they imply. What is true is that all economic systems, beyond the most basic, where even subsistence is hard to maintain, produce a social surplus. Now A&A in the early parts of their book say they do not like the idea of such a social surplus. To an extent, I have some sympathy with their argument. They say, basically that such a concept is a bit woolly. It requires us to consider that there is some given level of social output – but, of course, if you work longer that output COULD be greater – and that there is some minimum level of consumption – yet we see people, at different times and in different places, considering what is the minimum to be completely different things, and even the same people can survive on considerably varying quantities of “necessities” depending upon the circumstances. A social surplus is derived by taking the latter from the former, but if, as stated above, these two quantities are so flexible, it makes a mockery of the idea of some definable “surplus”.

The Marxist economist Paul Baran makes a similar point in his book “The Political Economy of Growth”, where he sets out that, in developing economies, there is often a considerable potential surplus that could be mobilised for the purposes of development, but that this potential surplus is at considerable variance with the actual surplus. The reason is that, frequently, in such economies, a ruling elite consumes vast amounts of resources, either as a result of a “demonstration effect”, causing a mimicking of the lifestyles and expenditure of Western elites, or of expenditure on arms to fight local battles, or simply resources are swallowed up by bureaucracy and inefficiency. If all, of these could be overcome, he argues, a large surplus could be mobilised for development.

However, this demonstrates the point. A surplus DOES exist. How we define that surplus, how we define and quantify the component parts out of which that Surplus arises then becomes simply a matter of discussion and agreement. It may not be as precise a definition as we would like, but that could be a good thing. The whole point about social science is the fact that it is based not upon an analysis of essentially immutable materials, but of very mutable human beings, and social institutions! In fact, having understood that, what becomes more important is not to concentrate on placing some absolutely precise numeric quantity upon that surplus, but to understand the nature of the social and productive relations under which it is produced. Once you do that you can at once begin to understand the real nature of profits, whilst at the same time understanding their SPECIFIC nature as the form that surplus takes ONLY under Capitalism.

At a very basic level, it is clear that we CAN talk about a subsistence minimum for human existence. The average human male requires around 1600 calories per day. Although, it is possible to go below that level for some time, doing so for a prolonged period will result in ill-health, bone shrinkage and other diseases, and eventually death. Moreover, a certain quantity of essential minerals and vitamins must comprise part of that 1600 calories. If we think of animals in the wild they may at times, create a surplus – in the sense that they will store food – but it is only in order to provide for themselves at times when they may not be able to acquire enough food to meet their current consumption. They do not “defer” consumption, in order to make a profit some time later, but merely in order to consume rather than die some time later!

For millions of years humans lived like that. Even modern humans, who have been around for about 70,000 years, lived like that until around 10,000 years ago, when they began to settle down and conduct agricultural activities. It is at this point that human societies can begin not only to produce more food than is required for immediate consumption, so as to store it for future consumption, but that a surplus can be created that also enables certain members of the society to become specialists, providing a specific function for the gens or tribe, in return for their subsistence. Moreover, this increase in human productivity makes possible for the first time in human history the holding of slaves. Previously, there was no point holding slaves, because they could not produce more than they required for their own consumption. They were either killed, sometimes eaten, or more frequently, were simply absorbed into the conquering tribe – especially if their numbers had been depleted.

Now, slaves could be held who would produce more than was required for their own subsistence, and who, therefore, increased the social surplus available to the tribe. At first, such slaves were those taken prisoner during conflicts, but increasingly, as the story of Joseph and the Pharaoh in the Old Testament sets out, they were ordinary members of the tribe, who for one reason or another found themselves in straightened circumstances. As that story tells, they would frequently become debt slaves first. Unable to produce sufficient food for their needs, they would borrow food from the Pharaoh or other wealthy farmer. Unable to pay it back, especially with high interest, they would sell their children, thereby reducing their productive potential further. Then they would sell their wives, their land, until they had nothing left to sell, but themselves.

In such slave societies it is easy to see the basis of the creation of the social surplus, and the means by which it is accumulated in the hands of a rich, ruling class, which through its ownership of both land and, more importantly, slaves is able to dominate society. Although, even in the Roman Empire, slaves made up only a small percentage of the total population, the concentration of their ownership in the hands of a tiny minority, who owned vast tracts of land, formed the basis of the accumulation of great wealth and power. The slave owners could always undercut the peasant producers, whose smaller landholdings, and reliance on the Labour Power of just their families, restricted their output to not much more than was required for their own subsistence. But, it would be wrong to describe this social surplus as “Profit”. Not only were the vast majority of members of these societies peasant producers whose output went almost exclusively to meet their own immediate needs – that is they were not producing to meet the needs of a market – and so any surplus does not take the form of money to be reinvested in greater output – but even in respect of the slave owners, their wealth is not held in the form of Capital, but of land and slaves, and other Use Values. They too, do not produce for the needs of a market. Rather, their production is the production of USE Values. Their output goes to maintain large retinues of soldiers and so on, upon which their power and social standing can be enhanced. It goes on the building of pyramids or other great works, on patronising artists, philosophers and so on.

If we look at feudalism, then again we see that the social surplus does not take the form of profits. Now, wealth resides almost exclusively in the ownership of land, though the survival of slavery in the form of serfdom continues for a while. Where the slave simply produced a given quantity, and was handed back part of what they had produced, under feudalism, the peasant producer owns what they produce, but is required by law and custom to hand over part of it – typically half – to the Lord of the Manor, who in turn hands over his dues to the ranks above him, and tithes to the Church, who in turn, hand over shares to their superiors, and upon which the great wealth of the nobility and Church was established. But, again, this surplus handed over as Taxes, Rents and Tithes is not profit! Those who receive it do not invest it to increase their productive potential. They are not forced to do so as a result of competition in the market place to reduce prices. What both feudalism and slavery have in common with Capitalism, though, is that in all of them, wealth is created by a class of producers, slaves, peasants and workers – and the social surplus, created as a result of these producers not consuming all that they produce, is then appropriated not by the producers, but by some other class of non-producers – slave-owners, feudal Lords, and Capitalists.

What is specific about profit under Capitalism is that the social surplus created by the producers is not appropriated in the form of use-values by the ruling class, is not appropriated for the primary purpose of their own consumption and aggrandisement, but is appropriated in the form of pure exchange value, money, and now primarily for the purpose of re-investment, to expand production. And Capital is forced to do this, because unless it does so, it is destroyed. Only by accumulating, expanding, and introducing new techniques can each Capital remain competitive, and avoid being pushed out of the marketplace by others. In fact, in reality it is not the Capitalists who appropriate the Surplus Value from the workers, but Capital itself!

But, once this basic economic reality is understood, that the essence of the social surplus is that it is produced by one class and appropriated by another, the secret of the source of profits is easy to unlock. It amounts simply to this, workers produce an amount of Exchange Value greater than the Exchange Value they receive back as wages. It was the unlocking of this secret as to how this could be, whilst, at the same time, maintaining the basic law that Labour Power, like any other commodity, was bought and sold at its Exchange Value, that separated Marx from the rest of Classical economy. Orthodox economics, because it is the economics of the ruling class cannot admit this basic fact, because to do so undermines the whole of the Capitalist system, exposes it, for all of its talk of free and fair exchange, as being a system based on exploitation. Instead, orthodox economics, as stated above, prefers to justify profits rather than to explain them.

Justifications For Profit

If we take some of these justifications of profits, we can see what a shaky basis they are established upon. Take the concept of abstention, that is deferring consumption. As stated above, a squirrel abstains from eating some of the nuts it collects in order to save some to eat over the Winter. But, this act of abstention does not miraculously result in the store of nuts increasing in size via compound interest! Moreover, if profits are a consequence of such abstention then the greatest share of profits should go to workers, because the average consumption of a worker is positively frugal when compared to that of the average Capitalist! Workers who do manage to save – for example nowadays into Pension Funds – are largely in the same position as the squirrel, not the Capitalist. That is these savings do not provide the worker with CAPITAL, from which they can draw profits, but amount to little more than deferred consumption, allowing the worker to have some income with which to maintain a modest level of consumption in retirement. Its true that – if they are lucky and the underlying investments into which their pension has been placed have not crashed in the Stock Market – even the worker can receive a small amount of interest on these savings (though often even this is eaten away by inflation), but this still leaves us with the question of the source of the fund from which this interest is paid. As with the squirrel the simple act of deferring consumption cannot do the trick.

Nor can the simple act of lending the money saved as a result of deferring this consumption do the trick either. If I lend you money, which you then proceed to spend for your own consumption, I may as well have undertaken the consumption myself, because if you had no wealth to begin with – which is presumably the reason you borrowed from me – then having consumed what you have purchased, you have no wealth at the end of this process to pay me back even what you have borrowed let alone, any interest upon the sum borrowed. Worse, another justification for profits is often said to be a reward for risk taking. Well of course, people take risks every day without receiving profits for their endeavours. Workers risk not having a job as a result of bad decisions taken by managers over which they have no control. But, as the sub-prime fiasco has demonstrated, a large risk is lending to people who have little or no prospect of paying you back. In that case the return is not a large amount of interest, but the loss of all your money!!!!

So, it is clear that simply deferring consumption, or lending the money thereby saved cannot be a source of profit. In fact, its hard to see why anyone should be rewarded for such action either. Clearly, something more is required than just these two actions, the money must be put to some productive use, it must become Capital. But, put to productive use implies that something is produced. If I have £1,000 and lend this money to an entrepreneur then this entrepreneur will require payment for his labour. Let us say he is paid £100. The entrepreneur chooses a product to produce. He buys materials, which cost £500, a machine required for production that costs £100, and buys the necessary labour-power for which he pays £300. All of my £1,000 is spent. If then the entrepreneur sells the output for £1,000, I make absolutely nothing! The only way I can make a profit on the Capital advanced is if the product can be sold for more than £1,000.

The Mercantilists believed that this was the source of profits. Some orthodox economists try to pass this argument off as the source of profits even today. That was the argument used by A&A. They argued that because, B was prepared to pay more for X than it cost A to produce – something they were prepared to do, because even at this price they gained compared to how much it would have cost them to produce X themselves – then A could charge this higher price, thereby making a profit. But, its clear that this cannot be right. As Adam Smith himself pointed out in destroying the Mercantilists’ argument, if every Capitalist sold their products for 10% more than their value, they would each cancel one another out. It would simply be as if the price tag on each commodity had been inflated by 10%. If A sells to B a commodity whose Value is £100, for £110, and B sells to A similarly a commodity whose value is £100, for £110, then each could just as well have sold each other their products for £100! Both have cheated each other by the same amount. Nor can the solution be that some are bigger cheats than others. Although, as the economist Stuart set out, this can be an explanation for the profits of SOME Capitalists, it cannot be an explanation for the system as a whole, because if some are bigger gainers, then others are bigger losers. They still cancel each other out.

This is why, logically, this explanation of profits founders for orthodox economics, when it is forced to concede that competition would reduce prices to costs of production, thereby eliminating any profits. But, if we take the above example, we can see the implications of this. The entrepreneur buys materials whose value is £500. We are then forced to conclude that for the system as a whole this £500 cannot be the source of his profit, because he has paid its true value. Had he paid less then his gain would have been the sellers loss, had he paid more his loss would be the seller’s gain. The same is true for the machine that he buys. Yet, the Capitalists who sold this machine, and these materials made profits. So does he. The only other contributor to this process is the worker. But, the worker too has been paid the Value of his labour-power as defined as being the labour-time required for its production, the labour-time required to produce the food, shelter, clothing etc. that the worker buys with his wages in order to survive and reproduce.

Labour & Surplus Value

But, there is a difference between the commodity of Labour-Power, and these other commodities. A machine, and the materials used in production can confer no more value to the end product than they themselves contain. In fact, without being acted upon by Labour they can’t even do that, and their value would diminish through deterioration and depreciation unless Labour transformed them. But, that is not true of Labour-Power. The Value of Labour Power may be represented by say 4 hours labour-time, the time required to produce all of those items of food, shelter etc., but the worker once engaged by the Capitalist is capable of working and producing new value for much more than these 4 hours, for say 8, 10 or 12 hours. So, if the worker works for 8 hours, he has produced 4 hours of new value in excess of that required for his own production, in excess of what he has been paid in wages. Just as the slave produces a certain quantity of food etc., and receives back only a small part of what he has produced, in order to live, just as the peasant hands over a portion of his total production over and above what he required to live, so the worker, like the slave, produces a sum of value for the Capitalist, but receives back only a fraction of that sum in the form of wages, in order that he can live and reproduce.

It is important as stated above, however, not to confuse wage labour with slave labour, and to not confuse the surplus produced by the slave or the peasant with the surplus produced by the wage worker. The surplus produced by the slave is a surplus of use-values. So initially, is the surplus produced by the peasant, though as the market develops, and the peasant is forced to pay his rents in money more and more, this surplus assumes more the form of a surplus of Exchange Values, as the peasant is forced to produce goods to sell on the market in order to acquire money to make these payments. However, as Marx sets out in the Grundrisse, it is only with the development of wage labour proper that Exchange Value assumes its mature form, and that Exchange Value begins to replace Use Value as the dominant form of Value in economic relations.

See: Labour Power v Horse Power

Bearing this in mind let us look at the other arguments that A&A muster to explain profits. They also posit profits as Capital Gain. Even in orthodox economic terms this is dubious. There is a real reason for calling Capital Gains “Capital Gains”, and not “Profits”. But, let’s take the example, and analyse it anyway. In reality the criticism of this source of “profit”, is the same as those above. Where does the fund of value come from, out of which this Capital Gain can be paid? Imagine two people, each of whom own an asset in the form of houses. Both houses have the same market value of £100,000. Neither person has any other asset or income. Suppose, that one of these people decides that he believes the value of the others house is £110,000. Without some other asset to sell, or some form of income, this increase in the Capital Value of the house cannot arise, because the only value in existence is the £100,000 embodied in the other house. The only way in which this increased value of one of the houses can be manifest is if some new value is created. The potential purchases must create £10,000 of new value that they can hand over to the owner of the house in addition to the £100,000 embodied in the value of their own house. But, what does this mean in reality. As a human being, a worker, the second person not only has to produce this £10,000 of new value, in the meantime they also have to live. They require food, clothing etc. Before they can hand over this £10,000 of new value to the other householder they have to work to produce the value embodied in all of these necessary requirements. In other, words, we are forced to conclude that just as with profit this Capital Gain – for society as whole – can only arise if a social surplus is created, a surplus of value over and above that required to meet the needs of consumption. The failure to recognise this basic fact of economics is what leads to periodic bubbles in asset prices such as those seen recently in house prices.

Exchange, Monopoly and Profits

A&A provide us with another frame of reference for understanding how profits or Capital Gains can arise. Having previously set out the grounds upon which profit and consumer surplus can arise – varying levels of productivity between producers leading to gains from the Division of Labour – they argue that profits can arise basically as a result of mispricing, or unforeseen events. Some extraneous event can cause profits, because it may cause end prices to rise to a level not previously envisaged giving a surplus over costs, or else some event may cause input costs to fall below those envisaged, thereby leading to a similar divergence. Now, of course, viewed from the perspective of any individual Capitalist this CAN be the source of profits. But, for the reasons set out above, it can never be an explanation for the existence of profits for the system as a whole!

Nor, can the explanation they give that producers of inputs, particularly Labour-Power, systematically undervalue the input they are selling be an explanation. Its conceivable that the suppliers of inputs might undervalue the things they sell for one year, but seeing the profits made by those who they sell to far exceed their own, they would be quick to raise prices, or else to move their Capital into that other line of production. And if, Capitalism worked in the way that A&A, and orthodox economics proclaims, then workers too would simply bid up their wages, or else become Capitalists. Furthermore, would we not expect on average that there wopuld be as much overvaluation as under-valuation? But, we don’t we see Capitalist economies make huge amounts of profits overall each year. Where firms make losses, it is rarely because they have paid their workers too much!!!! Even recessions are not a sign of net losses. Reduced economic activity does not mean losses, but Capitalists removing Capital from production to avoid losses! In fact, often during a recession the Capital that is employed makes a higher rate of profit, due to lower costs.

In fact, if we consider the argument used by A&A previously where they demonstrated the reason for trade, and the source of profits we can see why this does not happen, and what the implications of it are. They are not the implications that A&A or orthodox economics wish to draw. They argued that as a result of specialisation both parties to the trade could benefit. One party was able to sell their product at a price higher than it cost them to produce – thereby making a profit. The other Party even at this price was able to obtain the product at a price lower than the price it would have cost them to produce – thereby obtaining a consumer surplus. The problem with this argument is, as I have said, that with a large number of producers in a competitive market, prices will be forced down to costs, so profits will disappear. Only, if we assume an element of monopoly can this argument be sustained. Now suppose that we admit this element of monopoly, and propose as our two exchanging parties not two independent producers, but rather posit one as being the Capitalist Class, and the other the Working Class. Now, the Capitalist class owns Capital in the form of machinery, land, buildings, materials, needed for production to take place, and also owns the food, shelter clothing etc. that workers need for their subsistence. The workers own only Labour-Power. If we set the example up in this way then we see how A&A’s graphic presentation and argument could be applied. Its similar to the example, of Land ownership and Rent. Because land is fixed in Supply, and because, therefore, those who own land exercise a Monopoly – no matter how high its price rises no new supply can be brought forward – these owners can charge Rent, that is they can charge an amount in excess of their costs. The situation with Capital is not exactly parallel, but is similar. Although, in any line of production it is always possible for Capital to enter, thereby bringing about an average rate of profit by competition, the total amount of Capital is at any one time relatively fixed in Supply just as with land. In fact, even with Land, its supply is not fixed for any particular purpose, and as the opening up of new territories in the New World demonstrated, if prices rise high enough, new supplies even of land can be brought about. We are beginning to see a similar thing now with land in Africa being developed as a potential new huge source of food supply, in reaction to rapidly rising global food prices.

In addition, new Capital is continually being created. Not only is this a natural function of the accumulation of Surplus Value, by existing firms, but every year, thousands of workers set up small businesses, former Managers try their luck, and so on. They use small amounts of savings along with borrowing from friends, family, banks and so on, to try to hit the big time. Around two-thirds fail within the first year, and most of the rest fail not long after that. But, some do succeed. Some really succeed, like Bill Gates and his mates, who went from a tiny business based in a garage to the world’s largest company. But, however, impressive such success stories, we shouldn’t be fooled into taking the exception as being the rule. Moreover, for every Microsoft, there is at least one old firm that disappears. Moreover, although, it might be possible for a small firm with little Capital to begin, as Microsoft did, in some completely new industry, and to succeed, in the vast majority of industries, which are not new, such a process is not possible.

Established industries, or areas of production, are dominated by big companies, by large scale production and the economies of scale that comes with it. It is simply not possible to enter say car production on a competitive basis from your domestic garage. Where large car producers like GM have been brought to their knees it is not the result of competition from a myriad of small producers, but a result of competition from other huge producers like Toyota. Although, there is sufficient Capital to ensure that the general principles of competition between Capitals continues, there is not sufficient Capital compared to the huge amount of available Labour Power to ensure that the two exchange on an equal footing. Capital always operates in a buyers market for Labour Power.

Its true on this basis, and that of the general specialisation of Capitalist production, that as a result of this exchange, workers could enjoy a “consumers surplus”. If we look at many examples, say China today, we see many peasant producers prepared to give up their independence to work for Capitalists in cities, because they can obtain a higher standard of living by so doing, even, though it involves selling their labour power at a price, which provides the Capitalist with a profit. This is a direct application of the argument A&A propose of exchange between producers. It is also the argument that Marx made in relation to the “Civilising Mission” of Capital. Through specialisation, it massively raises productivity, which even as it relatively impoverishes the worker vis a vis Capital, also raises his absolute standard of living.

But, if competition reduces prices to costs how come then that the Capitalists costs do not rise as workers push up wages, how come final prices do not fall to meet rising costs, thereby eliminating profits? Precisely, because of the element of Monopoly! Not the Monopoly of large firms versus small firms – though within this framework we can theorise that too in similar terms – but the Monopoly of Capital as against Labour. It is precisely because there are such a small number of Capitalists compared to the vast number of workers, that Capital is scarce compared to the ready availability of Labour Power, it is the fact, that the Capitalist can use their Capital in a multitude of alternative uses – for example, simply for unproductive consumption or speculation – whereas the worker can only use their Labour Power for one purpose – to be exchanged with Capital – because, unless they sell it they cannot acquire money, needed to eat, be clothed, sheltered and so on, that Capital does confront Labour in this Monopolistic manner.

In other words, profits arise in this model from all Capitalists selling their products at prices ABOVE their costs of production, whereas workers sell their Labour Power at its cost of production. So, although every Capitalist can recoup the losses they make as consumers in buying goods at prices above costs, by selling their own products at similarly inflated prices – and actual Monopoly producers can more than do so, by charging even higher prices, and making bigger “Monopoly” profits compared to small producers – workers cannot, because they do not stand in the same Monopoly position.

Engels sets out this argument in his Preface to Vol. III of Capital, in reply to one of Marx’s critics – W. Lexis. Engels says,

“One need not strain his thinking powers to see that this explanation for the profits of capital, as advanced by "vulgar economy," amounts in practice to the same thing as the Marxian theory of surplus-value; that the workers are in just the same "unfavourable condition" according to Lexis as according to Marx; that they are just as much the victims of swindle because every non-worker can sell commodities above price, while the worker cannot do so; and that it is just as easy to build up an at least equally plausible vulgar socialism on the basis of this theory, as that built in England on the foundation of Jevons’s and Menger’s theory of use-value and marginal utility. I even suspect that if Mr. George Bernard Shaw had been familiar with this theory of profit, he would have likely fallen to with both hands, discarding Jevons and Karl Menger, to build anew the Fabian church of the future upon this rock.

In reality, however, this theory is merely a paraphrase of the Marxian. What defrays all the price additions? It is the workers’ "total product". And this is due to the fact that the commodity "labour", or, as Marx has it, labour-power, has to be sold below its price. For if it is a common property of all commodities to be sold at a price higher than their cost of production, with labour being the sole exception since it is always sold at the cost of production, then labour is simply sold below the price that rules in this world of vulgar economy. Hence the resultant extra profit accruing to the capitalist, or capitalist class, arises, and can only arise, in the last analysis, from the fact that the worker, after reproducing the equivalent for the price of his labour-power, must produce an additional product for which he is not paid — i.e., a surplus-product, a product of unpaid labour, or surplus-value.”


See: Capital III Preface
Exploitation?

But, if that is the case, then given the conclusions drawn by A&A about the benefits to both parties from this exchange, is this in any case a bad thing? After all, not only did this specialisation result in profits, it also resulted in greater social output, and a consumer surplus. In a certain sense no, it is not. It is one of the reasons I said at the beginning I had put the word “exploitation” in quotes. Read Marx and Engels eulogy, even in the Communist Manifesto, of the amazingly progressive role that Capitalism played in revolutionising production, read their comments about Capitalism rescuing millions from the idiocy of rural life, or their comments about the progressive role played by Capital in transforming pre-capitalist economies in India, or indeed Marx’s comments in the Grundrisse about the “Civilising Mission” of Capitalism, and it is clear that neither Marx nor Engels position can be understood on the basis of some crude “anti-Capitalism”.

But, let us look at the reality of what A&A’s example actually demonstrates, and the conclusion it leads to. This analysis will also shed light on two further important elements of Marxist analysis – the differentiation of the peasantry, and the concentration of Capital. In that example, A has a Comparative Advantage in production over B. That is if we take two products X and Y, A can produce as much Y in a given time as can B, but can produce twice as much X during that time compared to B. The consequence is that it makes sense for A to specialise in producing X and for B to specialise in producing Y. The problem with this analysis as with much of orthodox economics is that it is static, whereas if we want to really understand the way economies and social systems work, we need a theory that is dynamic, that recognises that change is fundamental.

Let us assume that the reason for A’s superior productivity is wholly natural. It could be that they work better land, it could be they are stronger, more skilled or whatever. The fact remains, however, that as a result of this variation, and assuming the same conditions that A&A assume – that is that as a result of the existence of some form of monopoly, competition does not drive down the price they are able to charge to cost of production – A is able to make a profit. B has a consumer surplus, because they are able to buy some X for less than it would have cost them to produce themselves. If we simply see things as this cycle repeating itself over and over again then all we see are mutual benefits on both sides. But, reality does not work that way. The reality is that the profits made by A, will allow them to invest in their production, by introducing more machinery, perhaps even new, more productive machinery. Either way, they will be able to use these increased resources to increase production and thereby obtain the benefits of economies of scale. There productivity will rise as a consequence. But, B is not at all in this position. They have a consumers surplus, but not profits. They are not in a position to invest profits, and expand production.

What began as a natural advantage for A has now become something different, it is an advantage based on the greater accumulation and usage of Capital, an advantage based on greater size and economies of scale. If we maintain the argument as set up by A&A then in this dynamic model, the continually falling costs of A, will result in ever increasing profits, as the price of X remains constant determined by the price that B is prepared to pay for it, based on their own costs of production and subjective preferences! A wider and wider gulf must open up between A and B! In fact, once markets begin to develop in economies we do, in fact see precisely this process. Some peasants become richer, whilst others remain fairly constant, and others become pauperised. This is the “Differentiation of the peasantry” so wonderfully described and analysed by Lenin in his “The Development of Capitalism in Russia”. In this dynamic model, the cosy world of mutual benefit of both parties disappears, because over a fairly short period of time, the better off peasant is able to hire labour, buy horses and other equipment, whilst the poor peasant scrapes to survive. The poor peasant is forced to work on the rich peasant’s land in order to raise his income to pay taxes etc. Ultimately, - like the peasants in the story of Joseph and the Pharaoh – he is forced to sell his land, and to turn himself into a worker.

But, this separation is even more marked when we view the relationship between Capital and Labour. Yes, the huge increase in productive potential, the effects of the “Civilising Mission” of Capital ensure that the workers’ living standards rise, even rise significantly, but at the same time the difference between them and the Capitalists grows ever wider. At each stage that the process is ratcheted up, the minimum amount of Capital that is required to produce efficiently gets raised way beyond what the individual worker can muster, at each stage then the Monopoly of Capital is raised as against Labour, and consequently its ability to create profits from the exchange with Labour is increased.

However, is even this the fundamental basis of the Marxist critique of Capitalism? Is it this existence of increasing exploitation, which gives rise to the demand for the overthrow of Capitalist relations of production? The answer again I think is no. Marx was at pains to separate himself from the Moral socialists of the type of Sismondi, who railed at the gross injustices of Capitalism. If Marx were alive today, he would surely be even more justified in doing so. In Marx’s day, even in the world’s most advanced economy – Britain – workers lived in conditions of absolute poverty and squalor. Every few years the trade cycle threw workers on to the streets, and into starvation. Life expectancy had fallen in half to not much more than 20 years. But, his analysis of the “Civilising Mission”, demonstrated how those living conditions could rise at the same time that workers position vis a vis Capital deteriorated. The comparison today between workers conditions, and in Marx’s time is stark, a thorough vindication of his argument in relation to that Civilising Mission.

It would be totally alien to Marx’s hostility to Moral Socialism, to look at the standard of living of workers today, and to condemn Capitalism solely on the basis that the cost of that improvement was that a few individual Capitalists had at the same time become even more fabulously wealthy. That is not the politics of Marx, it is the politics of greed and envy, of cutting your nose off to spite your face. The Marxist critique of capitalism is far more significant than that, far more rooted in the objective historical method. I will look at that in the next part in this series.

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